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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Security Program Management and Oversight: Finally, this topic discusses elements of effective security governance, the risk management process, third-party risk assessment, and management processes. Additionally, the topic focuses on security compliance requirements, types and purposes of audits and assessments, and implementing security awareness practices in various scenarios.
Topic 2
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations: In this topic, you'll find discussions comparing threat actors and motivations, explaining common threat vectors and attack surfaces, and outlining different types of vulnerabilities. Moreover, the topic focuses on analyzing indicators of malicious activity in scenarios and exploring mitigation techniques used to secure enterprises against threats.
Topic 3
  • Security Architecture: Here, you'll learn about security implications across different architecture models, applying security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure in scenarios, and comparing data protection concepts and strategies. The topic also delves into the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.
Topic 4
  • General Security Concepts: This topic covers various types of security controls, fundamental security concepts, the importance of change management processes in security, and the significance of using suitable cryptographic solutions.
Topic 5
  • Security Operations: This topic delves into applying common security techniques to computing resources, addressing security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management, managing vulnerabilities effectively, and explaining security alerting and monitoring concepts. It also discusses enhancing enterprise capabilities for security, implementing identity and access management, and utilizing automation and orchestration for secure operations.

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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q713-Q718):

NEW QUESTION # 713
A security analyst is investigating a workstation that is suspected of outbound communication to a command-and-control server. During the investigation, the analyst discovered that logs on the endpoint were deleted. Which of the following logs would the analyst most likely look at next?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Since the logs on the endpoint were deleted, the next best option for the analyst is to examine firewall logs. Firewall logs can reveal external communication, including outbound traffic to a command-and-control (C2) server. These logs would contain information about the IP addresses, ports, and protocols used, which can help in identifying suspicious connections.
IPS logs may provide information about network intrusions, but firewall logs are better for tracking communication patterns.
ACL logs (Access Control List) are useful for tracking access permissions but not for identifying C2 communication.
Windows security logs would have been ideal if they had not been deleted.


NEW QUESTION # 714
A security team wants WAF policies to be automatically created when applications are deployed. Which concept describes this capability?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Automatically generating WAF rules when applications are deployed is a hallmark of Infrastructure as Code (IaC). IaC allows infrastructure components-including firewalls, WAF policies, and load balancers- to be defined and deployed via code templates rather than manual configuration. In DevSecOps, IaC enables security controls to be embedded into deployment pipelines, ensuring that protections such as WAF rules are created instantly and consistently whenever new application versions are released.
Security+ SY0-701 highlights IaC as a method for automating infrastructure provisioning, standardizing security controls, and reducing configuration drift. This allows development and security teams to collaborate more effectively by treating security policies as code.
IoT (B) refers to smart devices, IoC (C) refers to indicators of compromise, and IaaS (D) refers to cloud compute infrastructure-not automated security policy creation.
Thus, the correct answer is A: IaC.


NEW QUESTION # 715
A security manager wants to reduce the number of steps required to identify and contain basic threats. Which of the following will help achieve this goal?

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 716
Which of the following is the act of proving to a customer that software developers are trained on secure coding?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Attestation refers to providing formal evidence or proof that a particular process or activity has been completed according to standards or requirements. In this context, attestation involves demonstrating to customers or stakeholders that software developers have received appropriate training on secure coding practices.
Assurance generally refers to confidence or guarantees about the security posture but does not specifically mean proving or certifying training. Due diligence is the effort made to ensure compliance or safety, but it is not the act of proving training has occurred. A contract is a legal agreement, which may include requirements for training but is not the act of proving training itself.
The importance of attestation in compliance and governance processes is discussed in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain in SY0-701 materials#7:Chapter 5 CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests#.


NEW QUESTION # 717
Which of the following explains how a supply chain service provider could introduce a security vulnerability into an organization?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is having privileged access to client systems and becoming a target for attackers, which directly reflects a major risk discussed in the Security+ SY0-701 domain of Security Program Management and Oversight, specifically within third-party and supply chain risk management. Supply chain service providers often require elevated or privileged access to an organization's systems to perform maintenance, monitoring, software updates, or support services. This level of access significantly expands the organization' s attack surface.
When a vendor has privileged access, attackers may target the service provider as an indirect path into the primary organization. This type of compromise is especially dangerous because malicious activity may appear legitimate, using trusted credentials and authorized connections. The Security+ study guide emphasizes that third-party compromises can bypass traditional perimeter defenses, making them particularly difficult to detect and contain. As a result, vendors can unintentionally introduce vulnerabilities even if the organization's internal security controls are strong.
The other options do not directly introduce a security vulnerability. Delayed hardware shipments affect availability and project timelines but do not create a security weakness. Outsourcing customer service may introduce privacy or compliance concerns, but it does not inherently create a technical vulnerability unless combined with poor access controls. Failing to encrypt internal databases is an internal security failure, not a supply chain issue caused by a service provider.
From a Security+ perspective, managing this risk requires strong contractual controls, least-privilege access, continuous monitoring, and audit rights. Organizations must treat vendors as extensions of their own environment. Therefore, privileged access held by a supply chain provider-and the increased likelihood of that provider being targeted-is the most accurate explanation of how a supply chain service provider can introduce a security vulnerability.


NEW QUESTION # 718
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